ESAT Mock Module · Biology 3 of 3
ESAT Biology Mock Module 3 Worked Solutions
A full 27-question Biology module, the same length as one sitting of the real ESAT, with a worked solution for every question. Part of the ESAT preparation guide.
Question 1
Back to top ↑Which statement about the human genome is correct?
Key Idea (💡): The genome is all the DNA of an organism, coding and non-coding together. In humans only around 1-2% of it codes for protein; the rest includes regulatory sequences, RNA genes and repetitive DNA.
Shortcut rehearsed: Bases pair, and three of them code for one amino acid — The genome is all the DNA, coding and non-coding alike
ESAT specification: B5.1 — the genome as the full set of genetic material of an organism, and the fact that much of it does not code for protein
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q4 · Set 15 Biology Q9 · Set 15 Biology Q14 · Set 15 Biology Q19
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: B. The genome is the entire genetic material of an organism, and a large majority of human DNA does not code for protein
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Genome $=$ all the genetic material, not just the genes.
Most human DNA is non-coding.
Matches Option B.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What the word names
The genome is the complete set of genetic material in an organism - every base of DNA, including the mitochondrial DNA. It is a description of the DNA itself, not of what the DNA produces.
2. Coding is the small part of it
Only about 1-2% of the human genome codes for protein. The rest is not spare: it includes promoters and other regulatory sequences that decide when genes are switched on, genes for RNA that is never translated, introns, and large amounts of repetitive DNA. 'Non-coding' means 'does not code for protein', not 'does nothing'.
3. Why every body cell has the same genome
Body cells arise by mitosis from a single fertilised egg, so each carries the same DNA. What differs between a neurone and a liver cell is which genes are expressed, not which genes are present.
4. The neighbouring words
The set of proteins is the proteome; a single length of DNA coding for a protein is a gene; alternative versions of one gene are alleles. Each of those is offered here as a wrong answer.
Matches Option B.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. The genome is the complete set of proteins an organism is able to make — Proteome
That is the proteome. The genome describes the DNA, not the proteins it can give rise to. - C. The genome is one gene together with all of its known alleles — Gene Not Genome
One length of DNA coding for a characteristic is a gene, and its variants are alleles. The genome is the whole collection. - D. Every cell in the body contains a different genome — Expression Confused
All body cells derive by mitosis from one fertilised egg and carry the same DNA. What varies between cell types is which genes are expressed. - E. The genome consists only of those sequences that code for proteins — Coding Only
Only 1-2% of the human genome codes for protein. Restricting the definition that way would exclude almost all of it.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Equating the genome with the genes. Genes are a small fraction of it, and treating the rest as irrelevant is the reason 'junk DNA' was such a misleading name.
Takeaway (📌):
Genome = all the DNA. Proteome = all the proteins. Most of the human genome does not code for protein.
Question 2
Back to top ↑Which structure is found in a typical plant cell but not in a typical animal cell?
Key Idea (💡): Plant cells have a cellulose cell wall, chloroplasts and a permanent vacuole. Nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes and the cell surface membrane are present in both.
Shortcut rehearsed: Match the structure to the job it does — Wall, chloroplast, permanent vacuole - plants only
ESAT specification: B1.1 — the structure and function of the main sub-cellular components of plant and animal cells
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q2 · Set 15 Biology Q7 · Set 15 Biology Q12 · Set 15 Biology Q17
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. A cellulose cell wall
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Plant-only: cell wall, chloroplast, permanent vacuole.
Only the cell wall appears on the list.
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The plant-only list
Three structures distinguish a typical plant cell:
a cellulose cell wall, which is rigid and supports the cell;
chloroplasts, containing chlorophyll for photosynthesis;
- a permanent vacuole filled with cell sap, which keeps the cell turgid.
2. What both kinds share
Both are eukaryotic, so both have a nucleus containing DNA, mitochondria for aerobic respiration, ribosomes for protein synthesis, cytoplasm and a cell surface membrane controlling what enters and leaves.
3. The distinction that is easy to lose
A plant cell has a cell wall and a cell surface membrane, one outside the other. The wall is rigid and fully permeable; the membrane is partially permeable and does the actual controlling. Only the wall is plant-specific.
4. A caution
Fungi and bacteria also have cell walls, but not cellulose ones - fungal walls are chitin and bacterial walls are peptidoglycan. It is the cellulose that marks a plant.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. A nucleus — Shared Structure
Both are eukaryotic, so both have a nucleus. Only prokaryotes such as bacteria lack one. - C. A mitochondrion — Shared Structure
Animal cells respire aerobically and so need mitochondria - muscle cells are packed with them. - D. A cell surface membrane — Shared Structure
Every cell has a surface membrane. A plant cell has one as well as a wall. - E. A ribosome — Shared Structure
Both make proteins, so both have ribosomes. Even bacteria have them.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Assuming a cell wall replaces the cell membrane. A plant cell has both, and it is the membrane, not the wall, that controls what passes in and out.
Takeaway (📌):
Wall, chloroplast and permanent vacuole are the plant-only three. Nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes and membrane are shared.
Question 3
Back to top ↑An enzyme catalyses the breakdown of one substrate but has no effect on other, chemically similar molecules. Which statement best explains this specificity?
Key Idea (💡): An enzyme is a folded protein whose active site has a definite shape. Only a substrate complementary to that shape can bind and form an enzyme-substrate complex, and it is that requirement which makes each enzyme specific.
Shortcut rehearsed: Rate climbs with temperature until the enzyme denatures — Specificity comes from the shape of the active site
ESAT specification: B8.2 — the general mechanism of enzyme action, including the role of the active site and enzyme specificity
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q5 · Set 15 Biology Q10 · Set 15 Biology Q15 · Set 15 Biology Q20
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: D. The active site has a particular three-dimensional shape that is complementary to the substrate, so only a molecule that fits it can form an enzyme-substrate complex
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Active site has a definite complementary shape.
Only a substrate that fits can bind $\Rightarrow$ specificity.
Matches Option D.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Where the shape comes from
An enzyme is a protein, and its amino acid sequence makes it fold into one particular three-dimensional shape. A small region of that shape - the active site - is where the substrate binds.
2. Why the shape confers specificity
The substrate must be complementary to the active site, so that the two fit together and form an enzyme-substrate complex. A chemically similar molecule of the wrong shape simply cannot bind, and so is not catalysed. This is the lock-and-key idea; the refinement known as induced fit adds that the site moulds slightly around the substrate as it binds, but the complementarity requirement is unchanged.
3. What the enzyme then does
Binding strains the substrate's bonds and holds reacting groups in the right orientation, which lowers the activation energy for the reaction. The enzyme itself is unchanged at the end and is released to work again.
4. Why denaturing destroys activity
Because the specificity is a shape argument, anything that changes the shape destroys it. High temperature or an extreme pH breaks the bonds holding the fold, the active site loses its shape, and the substrate no longer fits - the enzyme is denatured.
Matches Option D.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. The active site is the largest region of the enzyme, so it dominates every reaction the cell carries out — Size Not Shape
The active site is a small region of the enzyme, not the largest, and size would not confer specificity in any case. - B. Enzymes are used up as they work, so each one can act on only a single molecule — Enzyme Consumed
Enzymes are catalysts: unchanged by the reaction and released to act again. That is why tiny amounts process large quantities of substrate. - C. The active site changes shape at random between reactions, so it happens to fit one substrate — Random Shape
A randomly changing site would have no reliable specificity at all. The shape is fixed by the protein's fold. - E. The substrate supplies the activation energy that the active site needs in order to work — Activation Energy Reversed
The direction is reversed: the enzyme lowers the activation energy the reaction needs. The substrate supplies nothing of the kind.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Saying an enzyme is 'used up' by the reaction. A catalyst is unchanged and released to work again, which is why very small quantities of enzyme handle very large quantities of substrate.
Takeaway (📌):
Specificity is complementary shape. The enzyme lowers the activation energy and emerges unchanged.
Question 4
Back to top ↑Which statement about respiration in human muscle is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Aerobic: glucose + oxygen $\rightarrow$ carbon dioxide + water, releasing a large amount of energy. Anaerobic in muscle: glucose $\rightarrow$ lactic acid, releasing far less, because the glucose is only partly broken down.
Shortcut rehearsed: Negative feedback always opposes the change that triggered it — Aerobic yields far more energy; anaerobic in muscle makes lactic acid
ESAT specification: B9.1 — respiration: aerobic and anaerobic respiration, their products and their relative energy yields
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q1 · Set 16 Biology Q7 · Set 16 Biology Q13 · Set 16 Biology Q17
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: E. Aerobic respiration releases far more energy per glucose molecule and produces carbon dioxide and water, whereas anaerobic respiration in muscle produces lactic acid
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Aerobic: $\text{CO}_2$ and water, high yield.
Anaerobic (muscle): lactic acid, low yield.
Matches Option E.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Aerobic respiration
glucose $+$ oxygen $\rightarrow$ carbon dioxide $+$ water
The glucose is broken down completely, so the energy released per molecule is large - around twenty times what anaerobic respiration yields.
2. Anaerobic respiration in muscle
glucose $\rightarrow$ lactic acid
With no oxygen, the breakdown is incomplete and stops at lactic acid, which still holds most of the chemical energy. That is why the yield is so much lower.
3. Why muscle uses it anyway
During hard exercise the blood cannot deliver oxygen fast enough. Anaerobic respiration keeps some energy coming, at the cost of accumulating lactic acid and building an oxygen debt - the extra oxygen needed afterwards to break the lactic acid down, which is why you keep breathing hard after stopping.
4. Anaerobic respiration in yeast is different
In yeast the products are ethanol and carbon dioxide rather than lactic acid, which is the basis of brewing and baking. The question specifies muscle.
Matches Option E.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Anaerobic respiration releases more energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration — Yields Swapped
Reversed. Anaerobic respiration leaves most of the energy locked in the lactic acid, so its yield is far lower. - B. Aerobic respiration produces lactic acid as one of its products — Products Swapped
Lactic acid is the anaerobic product. Aerobic respiration gives carbon dioxide and water. - C. Neither process releases energy; both store it for later use — Direction Reversed
Respiration releases energy from glucose for the cell to use. Storing it is what glycogen and fat are for. - D. Anaerobic respiration in muscle produces carbon dioxide and water — Products Swapped
Those are the aerobic products. Anaerobic respiration in muscle produces lactic acid.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Describing respiration as 'making energy'. Energy is released from glucose, not created - and respiration happens in every living cell, continuously, not only during exercise.
Takeaway (📌):
Aerobic: complete breakdown, $\text{CO}_2$ and water, high yield. Anaerobic in muscle: incomplete, lactic acid, low yield.
Question 5
Back to top ↑Bacteria are engineered so that they produce human insulin. Which description of the process is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific sequences, leaving sticky ends; the insulin gene and an opened plasmid have complementary ends and are joined by ligase. The recombinant plasmid is taken up by bacteria, which then transcribe and translate the human gene.
Shortcut rehearsed: Selection acts on variation that is already there — Cut with restriction enzymes, paste with ligase, express in the host
ESAT specification: B6.1 — genetic engineering: isolating a gene, inserting it into a vector, and expression in the host organism
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q3 · Set 15 Biology Q8 · Set 15 Biology Q13 · Set 15 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: B. The human insulin gene is cut out using restriction enzymes and joined into a bacterial plasmid using ligase; bacteria take up the plasmid and express the gene, making human insulin
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Cut the gene out (restriction enzymes) $\to$ paste into a plasmid (ligase) $\to$ bacteria take it up $\to$ bacteria express it.
Matches Option B.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Isolate the gene
Restriction enzymes cut DNA wherever a specific short base sequence occurs. Many cut unevenly, leaving short single-stranded overhangs - sticky ends - on each fragment.
2. Open the vector with the same enzyme
A bacterial plasmid - a small circle of DNA separate from the chromosome - is cut with the same restriction enzyme, so its sticky ends are complementary to the gene's and the two pair up by base pairing.
3. Seal and insert
Ligase joins the sugar-phosphate backbones, producing a recombinant plasmid. Bacteria take it up, and because the genetic code is universal, they transcribe and translate the human gene exactly as their own.
4. Why this replaced the earlier method
Insulin was previously extracted from the pancreases of slaughtered pigs and cattle, in tiny quantities, and differed slightly from the human protein. Engineered bacteria produce genuinely human insulin in bulk in a fermenter.
Matches Option B.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Human insulin protein is injected into the bacteria, which then copy the protein directly — Protein Transferred
A cell cannot copy a protein. Proteins are made by expressing a gene, so it is the gene that has to be transferred. - C. Bacteria are exposed to insulin repeatedly until they mutate into a strain that produces it — Directed Mutation
Mutations are random and are not caused by an organism's needs. Exposure to insulin cannot direct a bacterium to evolve the ability to make it. - D. Human insulin-producing cells are fused with bacterial cells to form a hybrid organism — Wrong Technique
Cell fusion is used to make monoclonal antibodies from hybridomas, and only between similar cell types. It is not how insulin is produced. - E. A gene the bacteria already possess for insulin is switched on using hormones — Gene Assumed Present
Bacteria have no insulin gene of their own. The whole point of the technique is to give them one.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Transferring the protein rather than the gene. A cell cannot copy a protein it is handed; it can only make protein by expressing a gene.
Takeaway (📌):
Restriction enzyme cuts, ligase joins, plasmid carries, host expresses. The universal genetic code is what makes it work across species.
Question 6
Back to top ↑A population of bacteria is repeatedly treated with an antibiotic. After some time, almost all the bacteria present are resistant to it. Which explanation is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Random mutation produced a resistance allele in a few bacteria before the antibiotic was used. The antibiotic then killed the non-resistant majority, leaving the resistant cells to reproduce, so the allele's frequency rose.
Shortcut rehearsed: Selection acts on variation that is already there — Variation comes first; selection acts on it afterwards
ESAT specification: B7.1 — natural selection and evolution: variation, differential survival and the change in allele frequency over time
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q3 · Set 15 Biology Q8 · Set 15 Biology Q13 · Set 15 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. A few bacteria already carried a resistance allele arising from a chance mutation; those survived the treatment and reproduced, so the frequency of that allele rose in the population
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Mutation first (random, undirected) $\Rightarrow$ a few resistant cells exist.
Antibiotic kills the rest $\Rightarrow$ survivors reproduce $\Rightarrow$ allele frequency rises.
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Variation exists first
Mutations happen at random, all the time, whether or not they are useful. In a population of billions of bacteria, a mutation conferring resistance will already be present in a few individuals before any antibiotic is applied.
2. The antibiotic is the selection pressure
It does not create the resistance; it kills the bacteria that lack it. That is differential survival - the essential step in natural selection.
3. Reproduction changes the frequency
The survivors divide and pass the allele to their descendants. Bacteria reproduce in minutes, so within days the resistant type dominates. The population has evolved, without any individual bacterium having changed.
4. Why the wrong explanation is so tempting
It is natural to say the bacteria 'became resistant because they needed to'. That is Lamarck's idea of adaptation, and it is wrong: mutation is undirected and cannot be summoned by need. The same distinction is why finishing a course of antibiotics matters - stopping early leaves the partially resistant survivors alive to multiply.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. The antibiotic caused the bacteria to develop resistance, because they needed it in order to survive — Directed Mutation
This is Lamarckian: mutations are random and cannot be induced by need. The antibiotic selects among existing variants, it does not create them. - C. The bacteria learned to resist the antibiotic during exposure and passed that learning to their offspring — Learning Inherited
Bacteria have no capacity to learn, and learned behaviour is not inherited in any organism. - D. All the bacteria in the population became resistant simultaneously when the antibiotic was applied — Simultaneous Change
A simultaneous population-wide change is not how mutation works. The change is in the proportions of existing types. - E. The antibiotic was chemically altered by the bacteria into a harmless substance, so no resistance was needed — Resistance Denied
Some resistance mechanisms do involve enzymes that break down the antibiotic - but that mechanism is resistance, encoded by a gene, and it still had to arise by mutation and be selected for.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Saying the antibiotic caused the resistance. Mutations are random and undirected; the antibiotic only decides which existing variants survive.
Takeaway (📌):
Variation arises by chance, selection acts on it, and the allele frequency changes. Nothing in the process is directed by need.
Question 7
Back to top ↑Which word equation correctly summarises photosynthesis in a green plant?
Key Idea (💡): carbon dioxide $+$ water $\rightarrow$ glucose $+$ oxygen, with light energy absorbed by chlorophyll driving the reaction.
Shortcut rehearsed: Follow the energy one way and the carbon round in a circle — Carbon dioxide plus water gives glucose plus oxygen
ESAT specification: B11.1 — the importance of photosynthesis: the process, its equation and its requirements
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q2 · Set 16 Biology Q8 · Set 16 Biology Q14 · Set 16 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. carbon dioxide $+$ water $\rightarrow$ glucose $+$ oxygen, using light energy absorbed by chlorophyll
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Reactants: $\text{CO}_2$ and water. Products: glucose and oxygen. Light and chlorophyll required.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The equation
carbon dioxide $+$ water $\xrightarrow{\text{light, chlorophyll}}$ glucose $+$ oxygen
In symbols, $6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2$.
2. Why it is endothermic
The reaction builds a large, energy-rich molecule from two small, stable ones, so it needs an energy input. That energy is light, absorbed by chlorophyll in the chloroplasts - which is why both appear over the arrow rather than as reactants.
3. Its relation to respiration
Aerobic respiration is this equation reversed: glucose $+$ oxygen $\rightarrow$ carbon dioxide $+$ water, releasing the stored energy. Option A is exactly that, offered as a trap.
4. Why it matters beyond the plant
Photosynthesis is the entry point for almost all the energy in living systems and the source of atmospheric oxygen. Every food chain begins with it.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. glucose $+$ oxygen $\rightarrow$ carbon dioxide $+$ water — Respiration
This is aerobic respiration - the reverse reaction. It releases energy rather than requiring it. - B. carbon dioxide $+$ water $\rightarrow$ glucose $+$ carbon dioxide — Substance Repeated
Carbon dioxide appears on both sides, so nothing has happened to it. The product is oxygen. - D. glucose $\rightarrow$ lactic acid, using light energy — Wrong Process
Lactic acid comes from anaerobic respiration in muscle and has nothing to do with plants or with light. - E. oxygen $+$ water $\rightarrow$ glucose $+$ carbon dioxide — Gases Swapped
Reactants and products swapped: plants take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen, not the other way round.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Writing respiration in its place. The two equations are reverses of one another, so a moment's care over which way round the arrow points is the whole difference.
Takeaway (📌):
$\text{CO}_2$ + water $\to$ glucose + oxygen, driven by light absorbed by chlorophyll. Respiration is the reverse.
Question 8
Back to top ↑In a food chain, the biomass available at each successive trophic level is much smaller than at the one before. Which explanation is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Roughly $10\%$ of the biomass at one level becomes biomass at the next. The rest is never eaten, is lost as heat from respiration and movement, or leaves as undigested material in faeces and as urea.
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. Not all the biomass at a level is eaten, and of what is eaten much is lost in respiration and as heat, and much is excreted undigested, so only a small fraction is built into the next level
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Losses: not eaten, respired as heat, excreted undigested.
Only about a tenth is passed on.
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Where the biomass goes
Three routes account for most of it:
Not eaten at all. Roots, bark and bones are not consumed, and many organisms die without being eaten.
Respired. Consumers use most of what they absorb for movement and, in mammals and birds, for maintaining body temperature. That energy leaves as heat and cannot be passed on.
- Excreted. Undigested material leaves in faeces and nitrogenous waste leaves as urea.
2. The size of the effect
Only around $10\%$ of the biomass at one level becomes biomass at the next. That compounding loss is why food chains rarely run beyond four or five links: there is simply not enough left to support another level.
3. Energy is not destroyed
It is transferred, chiefly as heat to the surroundings, where it is no longer available to the chain. Saying it is destroyed contradicts conservation of energy.
4. What the pyramid shows
This is why a pyramid of biomass narrows sharply upwards, and why eating plants directly feeds far more people from the same land than raising animals on it does.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. Organisms at higher trophic levels are physically smaller than those below them — Size Confused
Often the reverse - a fox is larger than a rabbit. It is the total biomass at each level that falls, not the size of the individuals. - C. Energy is destroyed as it passes from one organism to the next — Energy Destroyed
Energy cannot be destroyed. It is transferred out of the chain as heat, where the chain can no longer use it. - D. Producers absorb all of the Sun's energy, so none is available to any consumer — Producers Absorb All
Producers absorb only a small percentage of the light falling on them, and what they fix is exactly what supports the consumers. - E. Decomposers consume all the biomass before it can reach the next trophic level — Decomposer Role Wrong
Decomposers act on dead material and waste, recycling nutrients. They do not intercept the living biomass a consumer eats.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Saying energy is 'lost' in a way that implies destruction. It is transferred out of the chain, mostly as heat from respiration - conservation of energy still holds exactly.
Takeaway (📌):
About $10\%$ passes on. The rest is uneaten, respired as heat, or excreted - which is why food chains are short.
Question 9
Back to top ↑In humans, what determines the sex of the offspring at fertilisation?
Key Idea (💡): Females are XX, so meiosis gives them eggs that all carry an X. Males are XY, so half their sperm carry X and half carry Y. The sperm therefore determines the sex.
Shortcut rehearsed: Draw the cross and the ratio falls out — Every egg carries X; the sperm decides
ESAT specification: B3.4 — sex determination: XX and XY, and the inheritance of sex chromosomes
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q16 · Set 15 Biology Q21 · Set 15 Biology Q24 · Set 15 Biology Q26
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: D. The sperm, which carries either an X or a Y chromosome, while every egg carries an X
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Mother XX $\Rightarrow$ every egg carries X.
Father XY $\Rightarrow$ sperm carry X or Y.
The variable gamete is the sperm.
Matches Option D.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What each parent can produce
A human female is XX. Meiosis separates the pair, so every egg receives an X. A human male is XY, so meiosis gives half the sperm an X and half a Y.
2. The cross
Egg (always X) meets sperm (X or Y):
- X from sperm $\to$ XX, female
- Y from sperm $\to$ XY, male
3. The ratio it predicts
Half the sperm carry each chromosome, so the expected ratio is 1:1. The observed sex ratio at birth is very close to that, which is a direct check on the model.
4. Why the mother cannot determine it
She has no Y chromosome to pass on. Every gamete she produces is the same in this respect, so nothing she contributes can vary the outcome.
Matches Option D.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. The egg, which may carry either an X or a Y chromosome — Parent Reversed
A human female is XX and has no Y to pass on, so every egg carries an X. - B. Whether the egg is fertilised by one sperm or by more than one — Irrelevant Mechanism
Fertilisation by more than one sperm produces a non-viable zygote, and has nothing to do with sex determination. - C. The total number of chromosomes present in the egg — Number Not Type
Every normal gamete carries $23$ chromosomes. It is which sex chromosome, not how many, that matters. - E. The balance of hormones present in the uterus at the moment of fertilisation — Hormones Invoked
Hormones influence development after sex is determined; they do not set the chromosomes the zygote receives.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Attributing the outcome to the mother. Only the parent with two different sex chromosomes can produce two kinds of gamete, and in humans that is the father.
Takeaway (📌):
XX produces one kind of gamete, XY produces two. The XY parent determines sex, and predicts a 1:1 ratio.
Question 10
Back to top ↑Healthy plant cells are placed in a concentrated sugar solution. What happens to them, and by what process?
Key Idea (💡): A concentrated sugar solution has a lower water potential than the cell contents, so water moves out of the cells by osmosis across the partially permeable membrane. The cells become flaccid and, if enough water leaves, plasmolysed.
Shortcut rehearsed: Water follows the water potential; anything uphill costs energy — Water moves from high water potential to low
ESAT specification: B2.1 — diffusion, osmosis in terms of water potential, and active transport
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q22 · Set 15 Biology Q25 · Set 15 Biology Q27 · Set 16 Biology Q20
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. Water leaves the cells by osmosis, so they lose turgor and the membrane may pull away from the cell wall
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Outside is more concentrated $\Rightarrow$ lower water potential outside.
Water leaves by osmosis $\Rightarrow$ cells lose turgor, then plasmolyse.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Compare the water potentials
Water potential falls as solute concentration rises. The sugar solution is concentrated, so its water potential is lower than that of the cell contents.
2. Which way water moves
Osmosis is the net movement of water across a partially permeable membrane from higher to lower water potential - so out of the cells here. The membrane is the partially permeable barrier; the cell wall is fully permeable and does not control this.
3. What the cells look like afterwards
The vacuole shrinks and the cell loses turgor pressure, becoming flaccid. If enough water leaves, the cell membrane pulls away from the cell wall: the cell is plasmolysed. In a whole plant, this is wilting.
4. Why they cannot burst
Bursting is what happens to an animal cell placed in pure water, which has no wall to resist the swelling. Here water is leaving in any case, so the question does not arise.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Water enters the cells by osmosis and they burst — Direction Reversed
Water leaves rather than entering, and a plant cell's rigid wall prevents bursting in any case. - B. Sugar molecules move into the cells by osmosis until the concentrations are equal — Wrong Substance
Osmosis moves water, not solute. Large sugar molecules generally cannot cross the membrane at all. - D. Nothing happens, because the cellulose cell wall is impermeable to water — Wall Confused
The cellulose wall is fully permeable to water and dissolved substances; it is the membrane that controls what passes. - E. Water leaves the cells by active transport, which requires energy from respiration — Wrong Process
Active transport moves solutes against a gradient and needs energy from respiration. Water moves passively, by osmosis.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Describing sugar as moving by osmosis. Osmosis is the movement of water only; solutes move by diffusion or active transport, and large sugar molecules generally cannot cross the membrane at all.
Takeaway (📌):
Osmosis moves water, down a water potential gradient, across a partially permeable membrane - and needs no energy.
Question 11
Back to top ↑Which statement about enzymes is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Enzymes are proteins. They catalyse reactions by lowering the activation energy, they are unchanged at the end and can act again, and their activity depends strongly on temperature and pH because those affect the shape of the active site.
Shortcut rehearsed: Anything raising collision frequency or energy raises the rate — Protein catalyst; lowers activation energy; not used up
ESAT specification: B8.1 — enzymes as biological catalysts: their protein nature and their effect on activation energy
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 18 Chemistry Q1 · Set 18 Chemistry Q8 · Set 18 Chemistry Q15 · Set 18 Chemistry Q21
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: B. Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts, lowering the activation energy of a reaction without being used up by it
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Protein $\checkmark$, catalyst $\checkmark$, lowers activation energy $\checkmark$, not consumed $\checkmark$.
Matches Option B.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What they are made of
Enzymes are proteins - long chains of amino acids folded into a precise shape. That shape is the source of everything else they do.
2. What catalysis means here
Every reaction needs a minimum energy to get started, the activation energy. An enzyme provides a route with a lower barrier, so a far larger fraction of collisions has enough energy to react. The reaction therefore goes much faster at body temperature than it otherwise could.
3. They are not consumed
The enzyme emerges from the reaction unchanged and binds the next substrate molecule. A single molecule may process thousands of substrate molecules per second, which is why tiny quantities suffice.
4. Why temperature and pH matter so much
Raising the temperature speeds reactions up to a point, but beyond the optimum the bonds holding the protein's fold break, the active site loses its shape and the enzyme is denatured - permanently. The same happens at an unsuitable pH. Being biological is exactly why enzymes are more sensitive to conditions than an inorganic catalyst, not less.
Matches Option B.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Enzymes are carbohydrates that speed up the reactions of living cells — Wrong Molecule
Enzymes are proteins, not carbohydrates. It is their amino acid sequence that gives them their shape and specificity. - C. Enzymes raise the activation energy of a reaction, which is why the reaction proceeds more quickly — Direction Reversed
Backwards: raising the barrier would slow the reaction down. Catalysts lower it. - D. Enzymes are consumed by the reactions they catalyse, so a cell must continually replace them — Enzyme Consumed
A catalyst is unchanged by the reaction and is released to act again - one of the defining properties. - E. Enzymes work equally well at any temperature, because they are biological rather than chemical in nature — Sensitivity Denied
Being protein is precisely why enzymes are so temperature-sensitive: above the optimum the fold breaks and the enzyme is denatured.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Saying an enzyme 'lowers the energy needed for the reaction' loosely. It lowers the activation energy - the barrier - not the overall energy change, which is fixed by the reactants and products.
Takeaway (📌):
Protein, catalyst, lowers activation energy, unchanged afterwards, and sensitive to temperature and pH.
Question 12
Back to top ↑Which sequence correctly describes the pathway of a simple spinal reflex, such as pulling a hand away from a hot surface?
Key Idea (💡): Receptor $\to$ sensory neurone $\to$ relay neurone in the spinal cord $\to$ motor neurone $\to$ effector. The relay neurone in the cord is what makes the response fast and automatic, since the signal need not travel to the brain first.
Shortcut rehearsed: Negative feedback always opposes the change that triggered it — Receptor, sensory, relay, motor, effector
ESAT specification: B9.2 — organ systems: the nervous system, including the reflex arc
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q1 · Set 16 Biology Q7 · Set 16 Biology Q13 · Set 16 Biology Q17
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. Receptor $\rightarrow$ sensory neurone $\rightarrow$ relay neurone in the spinal cord $\rightarrow$ motor neurone $\rightarrow$ effector
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Receptor $\to$ sensory $\to$ relay $\to$ motor $\to$ effector.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The five components, in order
- Receptor - here a pain and temperature receptor in the skin - detects the stimulus.
Sensory neurone carries the impulse to the spinal cord.
Relay neurone, within the spinal cord, passes it straight across.
Motor neurone carries the impulse out to the muscle.
Effector - the muscle - contracts and the hand withdraws.
2. Why the brain is bypassed
Routing the signal through the spinal cord alone makes the response much faster, and it is automatic rather than a decision. The brain is informed separately, which is why you feel the pain a moment after your hand has already moved.
3. Where the synapses are
Between each pair of neurones there is a synapse, crossed by a chemical neurotransmitter. Each synapse adds a small delay, which is part of why reflexes involve as few neurones as possible.
4. Why sensory and motor cannot be swapped
Sensory neurones carry impulses in from receptors, motor neurones carry them out to effectors. Their names describe the direction, so an option that reverses them describes an impossible pathway.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Receptor $\rightarrow$ motor neurone $\rightarrow$ relay neurone $\rightarrow$ sensory neurone $\rightarrow$ effector — Order Reversed
Sensory and motor neurones are the wrong way round. Their names describe the direction each carries impulses. - B. Receptor $\rightarrow$ brain $\rightarrow$ effector, with no neurone in the spinal cord involved — Brain Involved
Routing through the brain is what a reflex avoids. The relay neurone in the spinal cord is what makes it fast and automatic. - D. Effector $\rightarrow$ sensory neurone $\rightarrow$ relay neurone $\rightarrow$ receptor — Wholly Reversed
Runs the whole pathway backwards, from effector to receptor. - E. Receptor $\rightarrow$ sensory neurone $\rightarrow$ effector, with no other neurone involved — Neurones Omitted
Omits the relay and motor neurones. A sensory neurone cannot act on a muscle directly.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Putting the motor neurone before the sensory one. The names give the direction: sensory in from the receptor, motor out to the muscle.
Takeaway (📌):
Receptor, sensory, relay, motor, effector - five steps, in the spinal cord, with the brain informed afterwards.
Question 13
Back to top ↑Which statement correctly distinguishes selective breeding from genetic engineering?
Key Idea (💡): Selective breeding works only with alleles already present in the population and needs many generations of choosing parents. Genetic engineering inserts one identified gene directly, in a single step, and can take it from an entirely different species.
Shortcut rehearsed: Selection acts on variation that is already there — Selective breeding chooses parents; engineering moves a gene
ESAT specification: B6.3 — selective breeding and genetic engineering: the similarities and differences between them
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q3 · Set 15 Biology Q8 · Set 15 Biology Q13 · Set 15 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: E. Selective breeding chooses parents from the variation already present and takes many generations; genetic engineering transfers a specific gene directly, and can cross the species barrier
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Selective breeding: existing variation, many generations, same species.
Genetic engineering: one gene, one step, any species.
Matches Option E.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Selective breeding
Choose the individuals with the desired characteristic, breed them together, then repeat with their offspring. It works only on alleles already present in the population, and each round takes a full generation - which is why developing a new crop variety takes decades.
2. Genetic engineering
Identify the gene responsible, cut it out, insert it into the target organism. One generation, and because the genetic code is universal the gene may come from a completely different species - a bacterial gene in a plant, a human gene in a bacterium.
3. What they share
Both change the genetic make-up of a population deliberately, and both are used for the same ends: higher yields, disease resistance, useful products. The difference is in the mechanism and the reach, not the purpose.
4. The risk each carries
Selective breeding narrows the gene pool, which leaves a population vulnerable to a new disease and can concentrate inherited defects - pedigree dogs are the standard example. Genetic engineering is faster but has less predictable long-term consequences, and its risks are still debated.
Matches Option E.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Selective breeding transfers a gene from one species into another; genetic engineering does not — Techniques Swapped
The two are swapped. Crossing the species barrier is what genetic engineering can do and selective breeding cannot. - B. Selective breeding produces its result within a single generation, whereas genetic engineering takes many — Techniques Swapped
Also swapped: selective breeding needs many generations, while genetic engineering acts in one. - C. Genetic engineering relies entirely on the variation already present within a population — Techniques Swapped
Relying on existing variation is the limitation of selective breeding. Genetic engineering can introduce a gene the population never had. - D. Selective breeding cannot change the characteristics of a species at all — Effect Denied
Selective breeding has transformed nearly every domesticated species - modern wheat, cattle and dogs are all its products.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Swapping the two around. Crossing the species barrier is the distinctive power of genetic engineering; selective breeding is confined to what a population already carries.
Takeaway (📌):
Selective breeding: existing alleles, many generations, within a species. Genetic engineering: one identified gene, one step, across species.
Question 14
Back to top ↑Which of the following is a source of variation that can be inherited by an organism's offspring?
Key Idea (💡): Only changes to the DNA of cells that give rise to gametes can be passed on. Characteristics acquired during life leave the DNA of the gametes untouched, however striking they are.
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. A mutation occurring in a cell of the reproductive organs that goes on to form a gamete
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Inherited $\Leftrightarrow$ change in the DNA of a gamete-forming cell.
Only the mutation in the reproductive organs qualifies.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The test to apply
Offspring receive DNA and nothing else. So a characteristic is heritable only if it corresponds to a difference in the DNA that a gamete carries.
2. Working through the acquired characteristics
A scar, trained muscle, a suntan and a diet-driven height difference are all environmental: real changes to the body, produced during the organism's life, that leave the DNA of the sperm or egg exactly as it was. None is passed on.
3. Why the mutation is different
A mutation in a cell of the reproductive organs changes the base sequence itself. If that cell forms a gamete and the gamete takes part in fertilisation, every cell of the offspring carries the change.
4. Where mutations do not get passed on
A mutation in a skin or liver cell is equally a change to DNA, but that cell never forms a gamete, so nothing is inherited. The distinction is not mutation against no mutation - it is which cell the mutation happens in.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. A scar left by an injury — Acquired Characteristic
Damage to body tissue, with no change to the DNA of any gamete. - B. Muscle bulk developed through years of training — Acquired Characteristic
An environmental change to muscle cells. A weightlifter's children are not born stronger. - D. A suntan acquired over a summer — Acquired Characteristic
A response of skin cells to ultraviolet light, and not carried in the gametes at all. - E. A difference in adult height caused entirely by childhood diet — Environmental Cause
Explicitly environmental in the option itself. Height has a strong genetic component, but a difference caused entirely by diet is not inherited.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Assuming any physical change to the body can be inherited. Only a change in the DNA that reaches a gamete is passed on - the Lamarckian intuition is a persistent one.
Takeaway (📌):
Inherited variation requires a DNA change in a gamete-forming cell. Everything acquired during life stops with that individual.
Question 15
Back to top ↑Which statement about the transport tissues of a flowering plant is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Xylem: dead, hollow, lignified vessels carrying water and mineral ions upwards only, pulled by transpiration. Phloem: living sieve tube elements with perforated end walls, carrying dissolved sugars up or down to wherever they are needed.
Shortcut rehearsed: Follow the energy one way and the carbon round in a circle — Xylem: water up, dead cells. Phloem: sugars, living cells, either way
ESAT specification: B11.2 — transport systems in plants: the structures and functions of xylem and phloem
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q2 · Set 16 Biology Q8 · Set 16 Biology Q14 · Set 16 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: E. Xylem carries water and mineral ions upwards from the roots in dead, hollow vessels, while phloem carries dissolved sugars through living cells and can move them in either direction
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Xylem: water and minerals, up only, dead cells.
Phloem: sugars, either direction, living cells.
Matches Option E.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Xylem
Xylem vessels are formed from cells that die, leaving hollow tubes strengthened with lignin and open end to end. They carry water and dissolved mineral ions from the roots to the leaves, in one direction only. The flow is pulled from above by evaporation from the leaves - transpiration - so it needs no energy from the plant.
2. Phloem
Phloem sieve tubes are living cells whose end walls are perforated by pores, supported by companion cells. They carry dissolved sugars from where sugar is made or stored to wherever it is needed - up to a growing shoot in spring, down to the roots in summer. This is translocation, and it requires energy.
3. The three contrasts to hold
Contents: water and ions, against dissolved sugars.
Direction: one way up, against either way.
- Cells: dead and hollow, against living.
4. A way to remember which is which
Phloem carries food. Xylem is the one that is dead, which fits the woody, lignified tissue it forms.
Matches Option E.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Xylem transports sugars away from the leaves and phloem transports water from the roots — Tissues Swapped
The two tissues swapped. Xylem carries water and ions; phloem carries sugars. - B. Xylem and phloem both transport water and nothing else — Contents Wrong
Phloem carries dissolved sugars, not water alone. The two tissues have quite different contents. - C. Xylem is made of living cells whose end walls are perforated by pores — Tissues Swapped
Perforated end walls belong to phloem sieve tubes, which are living. Xylem vessels are dead and hollow. - D. Phloem carries water upwards only, driven by transpiration from the leaves — Tissues Swapped
Transpiration drives the flow in xylem. Phloem transports sugars, in either direction, and needs energy to do so.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Swapping the two tissues. It is worth fixing one of them firmly - 'phloem carries food' - and deriving the other, rather than trying to hold both independently.
Takeaway (📌):
Xylem: dead tubes, water and ions, upwards only. Phloem: living tubes, sugars, either direction.
Question 16
Back to top ↑A gene has two alleles, $T$ and $t$. An individual with genotype $Tt$ shows the characteristic associated with $T$. Which statement is correct?
Key Idea (💡): $Tt$ carries one of each allele, so the individual is heterozygous. The characteristic that appears in a heterozygote is by definition the dominant one, so $T$ is dominant and $t$ recessive.
Shortcut rehearsed: Draw the cross and the ratio falls out — One of each allele is heterozygous; the visible one is dominant
ESAT specification: B4.2 — genetic terms: gene, allele, dominant, recessive, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q16 · Set 15 Biology Q21 · Set 15 Biology Q24 · Set 15 Biology Q26
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. $T$ is dominant, $t$ is recessive, and the individual is heterozygous
Fastest Approach (🚀):
$Tt$: one of each $\Rightarrow$ heterozygous.
The allele that shows in a heterozygote is dominant $\Rightarrow T$ dominant, $t$ recessive.
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Name the pairing
Two different alleles of the same gene make the individual heterozygous. Two identical alleles - $TT$ or $tt$ - would be homozygous.
2. Identify the dominant allele
A dominant allele is one that is expressed even when only one copy is present. The individual is $Tt$ and shows the $T$ characteristic, so $T$ is dominant by definition, and $t$ is recessive.
3. Genotype and phenotype are different words
The genotype is $Tt$ - the alleles present. The phenotype is the observable characteristic those alleles produce. Writing $Tt$ as a phenotype confuses the two, which is what option D does.
4. How a recessive allele shows
$t$ is not lost. It appears in the phenotype only in a $tt$ individual, which is why a recessive characteristic can skip generations and reappear when two carriers have offspring.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. $T$ is recessive, and the individual is homozygous — Both Wrong
Both halves are wrong: $Tt$ is heterozygous, and the allele that shows in a heterozygote is the dominant one. - C. Both alleles are dominant, which is why only one characteristic is visible — Codominance
If both were fully dominant, both characteristics would appear - that is codominance, and the question describes only one visible characteristic. - D. The individual's phenotype is $Tt$ — Genotype As Phenotype
$Tt$ is the genotype. The phenotype is the observable characteristic it produces. - E. $t$ is dominant but is masked by $T$ — Terms Swapped
A masked allele is by definition the recessive one. Dominance is about which allele is expressed, not which is 'stronger'.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Using 'genotype' and 'phenotype' interchangeably. The genotype is the pair of alleles; the phenotype is what you can observe.
Takeaway (📌):
Two different alleles: heterozygous. The one expressed in a heterozygote is dominant. Genotype is the letters; phenotype is the characteristic.
Question 17
Back to top ↑A human body cell containing $46$ chromosomes divides by mitosis. How many chromosomes does each daughter cell contain, and how are the daughter cells related genetically?
Key Idea (💡): Mitosis produces two daughter cells with the same chromosome number as the parent and identical genetic material, because the DNA is replicated once and the copies are separated exactly.
Shortcut rehearsed: Pick the identity that matches what is already there — Mitosis: same number, same genes, two cells
ESAT specification: B3.1 — mitosis and the cell cycle: the production of two genetically identical diploid daughter cells
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 8 Adv Maths Q6 · Set 8 Adv Maths Q13 · Set 8 Adv Maths Q19 · Set 9 Adv Maths Q4
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: E. $46$ chromosomes, genetically identical to each other
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Mitosis conserves the chromosome number $\Rightarrow 46$.
DNA replicated then separated exactly $\Rightarrow$ genetically identical.
Matches Option E.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What happens to the DNA
Before division each chromosome is replicated, producing two identical sister chromatids joined at a centromere. The cell briefly holds twice the usual amount of DNA, but still $46$ chromosomes.
2. What the division does
The chromatids are pulled apart so that each daughter cell receives one copy of every chromosome. Each daughter therefore ends with $46$ chromosomes - the same as the parent - and with DNA identical to it.
3. Why identity matters here
Mitosis is used for growth, repair and asexual reproduction, all of which need faithful copies. Variation would be a fault, not a feature.
4. The contrast with meiosis
Meiosis halves the number to $23$ and produces four cells that differ from one another, through independent assortment and crossing over. Options A and B borrow the meiosis number; option D borrows its variation.
Matches Option E.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. $23$ chromosomes, genetically identical to each other — Meiosis Number
The right genetic relationship with the meiosis number. Halving happens in gamete production, not in mitosis. - B. $23$ chromosomes, genetically different from each other — Meiosis Described
Both halves belong to meiosis, not mitosis. - C. $92$ chromosomes, genetically identical to each other — Chromatids Counted
$92$ is the DNA content immediately after replication, counted as separate chromosomes. The chromatids are still joined, so the count is $46$. - D. $46$ chromosomes, genetically different from each other — Variation Claimed
The right number, but mitosis produces identical cells. Genetic variation comes from meiosis and mutation.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Reaching for $23$ because it is the number attached to human cell division in most questions. That is the gamete number, produced by meiosis, not mitosis.
Takeaway (📌):
Mitosis: two cells, chromosome number unchanged, genetically identical. Meiosis: four cells, number halved, all different.
Question 18
Back to top ↑An enzyme has an optimum temperature of $40\ ^\circ\text{C}$. The temperature of the reaction mixture is raised from $40\ ^\circ\text{C}$ to $60\ ^\circ\text{C}$. What happens to the rate of reaction, and why?
Key Idea (💡): Below the optimum, heating speeds the reaction up by increasing collision frequency and energy. Above it, the bonds holding the protein's three-dimensional fold break, the active site no longer matches the substrate, and the rate collapses.
Shortcut rehearsed: Rate climbs with temperature until the enzyme denatures — Past the optimum, the active site loses its shape for good
ESAT specification: B8.3 — the effect of temperature and pH on the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions, including denaturation
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q5 · Set 15 Biology Q10 · Set 15 Biology Q15 · Set 15 Biology Q20
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: D. It falls sharply, because the enzyme's active site loses its shape and the enzyme is denatured
Fastest Approach (🚀):
$60 > 40 = $ optimum $\Rightarrow$ past the peak.
Bonds holding the fold break $\Rightarrow$ active site distorted $\Rightarrow$ rate falls sharply.
Matches Option D.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The shape of the curve
Rate against temperature rises to a peak at the optimum and then falls away steeply. The two halves have completely different causes, which is why the curve is not symmetrical.
2. Below the optimum
Heating gives molecules more kinetic energy, so enzyme and substrate collide more often and with more energy. The rate rises, roughly doubling for each $10\ ^\circ\text{C}$.
3. Above the optimum
The extra energy also breaks the hydrogen bonds and other interactions holding the protein in its folded shape. The active site distorts, the substrate no longer fits, and no enzyme-substrate complex forms. The enzyme is denatured.
4. Why it is not reversible
Cooling the mixture does not restore the fold - the protein does not spontaneously return to its original conformation. That is why a boiled egg never becomes raw again, and it is what rules out option E.
Matches Option D.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. It roughly doubles, because raising the temperature always increases the rate of a reaction — Rule Over-applied
True only below the optimum. Above it the same energy destroys the fold that the enzyme depends on. - B. It is unchanged, because the substrate concentration has not been altered — Factor Ignored
Substrate concentration is one factor among several; temperature affects the enzyme itself, quite independently. - C. It rises slightly and then settles at a new, higher steady rate — Direction Wrong
The rate does not settle higher - it collapses, because the catalyst has stopped working. - E. It falls, but returns fully to the original rate if the temperature is brought back to $40\ ^\circ\text{C}$ — Reversibility Assumed
Denaturation is permanent. The protein does not refold on cooling, which is why a cooked egg stays cooked.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Applying 'hotter means faster' past the optimum. That rule holds for the rising half of the curve only, and the point of naming an optimum is to mark where it stops.
Takeaway (📌):
Below the optimum, heat speeds it up. Above it, the enzyme denatures and the loss is permanent.
Question 19
Back to top ↑Blood glucose concentration rises sharply after a meal. Which response brings it back towards its normal level?
Key Idea (💡): The pancreas detects the rise and releases insulin. Insulin makes liver and muscle cells take glucose out of the blood and store it as insoluble glycogen, so the concentration falls - negative feedback.
Shortcut rehearsed: Negative feedback always opposes the change that triggered it — Insulin lowers blood glucose by storing it as glycogen
ESAT specification: B9.3 — homeostasis: the maintenance of a constant internal environment, including the control of blood glucose
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q1 · Set 16 Biology Q7 · Set 16 Biology Q13 · Set 16 Biology Q17
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: B. The pancreas releases insulin, which causes liver and muscle cells to take up glucose and store it as glycogen
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Glucose high $\Rightarrow$ pancreas releases insulin $\Rightarrow$ cells take up glucose, stored as glycogen $\Rightarrow$ concentration falls.
Matches Option B.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Detection
The pancreas monitors the glucose concentration of the blood passing through it and responds to a rise by secreting insulin.
2. The effect of insulin
Insulin makes liver and muscle cells more permeable to glucose and stimulates them to convert it to glycogen, which is insoluble and so can be stored without disturbing the water potential of the cell. Glucose leaves the blood and the concentration falls.
3. The opposite arm of the system
When the concentration falls too low, the pancreas releases glucagon instead, which converts glycogen back into glucose and raises it again. Two hormones with opposing effects, from the same organ, is the standard shape of a homeostatic control system.
4. Why this is negative feedback
The response always opposes the change that triggered it, which is what keeps the concentration oscillating narrowly about a set point rather than drifting. In Type 1 diabetes the pancreas cannot produce insulin, so this arm of the system fails and glucose must be injected against.
Matches Option B.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. The pancreas releases glucagon, which converts stored glycogen into glucose — Hormones Swapped
Glucagon is the correct hormone for the opposite situation - it raises blood glucose when the concentration is too low. - C. The liver releases insulin, which raises the concentration further — Organ and Effect Wrong
The pancreas releases insulin, not the liver, and insulin lowers the concentration rather than raising it. - D. The pancreas stops producing hormones entirely until the concentration falls of its own accord — No Response
Homeostasis is active regulation. Doing nothing is exactly what fails to happen in untreated diabetes, with serious consequences. - E. The kidneys release insulin so that the excess glucose is excreted in the urine — Wrong Organ
The kidneys do not produce insulin. Glucose appearing in the urine is a symptom of uncontrolled diabetes, not the control mechanism.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Swapping insulin and glucagon. The similar names hide opposite effects: insulin lowers blood glucose, glucagon raises it.
Takeaway (📌):
Pancreas detects; insulin lowers by storing glycogen; glucagon raises by releasing it. Always negative feedback.
Question 20
Back to top ↑In a certain species, brown eyes ($B$) are dominant to blue eyes ($b$). Two heterozygous brown-eyed individuals are crossed. What proportion of the offspring is expected to have blue eyes?
Key Idea (💡): $Bb \times Bb$ gives $BB$, $Bb$, $bB$, $bb$ in equal proportions. Only $bb$ shows the recessive phenotype, so $\tfrac14 = 25\%$ are blue-eyed.
Shortcut rehearsed: Draw the cross and the ratio falls out — Heterozygous by heterozygous gives 3:1 in the phenotype
ESAT specification: B4.3 — monohybrid crosses: using genetic diagrams to predict the ratios of offspring genotypes and phenotypes
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q16 · Set 15 Biology Q21 · Set 15 Biology Q24 · Set 15 Biology Q26
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. $25\%$
Fastest Approach (🚀):
$Bb \times Bb \Rightarrow BB : Bb : bB : bb$, one each.
Blue needs $bb$: one box in four $= 25\%$.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Draw the cross
Each parent produces $B$ and $b$ gametes in equal numbers. The four combinations are:
| | $B$ | $b$ |
|--------|------|------|
| $B$ | $BB$ | $Bb$ |
| $b$ | $bB$ | $bb$ |
2. Read off the genotypes
$1\ BB : 2\ Bb : 1\ bb$ - the classic $1:2:1$ genotype ratio.
3. Convert to phenotypes
$BB$ and $Bb$ both show brown, because one $B$ is enough. Only $bb$ shows blue. That gives $3$ brown to $1$ blue, so blue is $\tfrac14 = 25\%$.
4. Why 'expected' matters
This is a probability for each offspring independently, not a guarantee about a particular family. Four children from such a cross may easily all be brown-eyed; the ratio emerges over large numbers.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. $0\%$ — Recessive Excluded
Both parents carry a $b$ allele, so $bb$ offspring are possible - which is exactly how a recessive characteristic reappears from two unaffected parents. - B. $50\%$ — Genotype Not Phenotype
The proportion of heterozygotes, $Bb$, which show the brown phenotype rather than the blue one. - D. $75\%$ — Wrong Phenotype
The proportion showing the dominant phenotype. The question asks for blue. - E. $100\%$ — Homozygous Assumed
Would require both parents to be $bb$, and then neither could show brown eyes.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Reading off the genotype ratio and quoting $50\%$, which is the proportion of heterozygotes. The question asks for a phenotype, and only $bb$ shows it.
Takeaway (📌):
$Bb \times Bb$: genotypes $1:2:1$, phenotypes $3:1$. The recessive phenotype is always the single $\tfrac14$ box.
Question 21
Back to top ↑Which statement is true of meiosis but not of mitosis?
Key Idea (💡): Meiosis halves the chromosome number to produce haploid gametes, and independent assortment and crossing over make all four products genetically different. Mitosis does neither.
Shortcut rehearsed: Mitosis copies, meiosis halves and shuffles — Meiosis halves the number and generates variation
ESAT specification: B3.2 — meiosis and the cell cycle: the production of four genetically different haploid gametes
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q1 · Set 15 Biology Q6 · Set 15 Biology Q11 · Set 16 Biology Q3
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: B. The chromosome number is halved, and the daughter cells differ genetically from one another
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Meiosis: $46 \to 23$, four different gametes.
Mitosis: $46 \to 46$, two identical cells.
Only the halving-plus-variation statement separates them.
Matches Option B.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Test each statement against both processes
- Replication before division - happens in both.
- Halving plus genetic difference - meiosis only.
- Two daughter cells - that is mitosis; meiosis makes four.
- Growth and repair in body cells - mitosis.
- Daughters identical to the parent - mitosis.
Only one statement survives.
2. Where the halving comes from
Meiosis has two divisions after a single replication. The first separates the homologous pairs, which is what halves the number from diploid $46$ to haploid $23$; the second separates the chromatids.
3. Where the variation comes from
Two mechanisms. Independent assortment: each homologous pair lines up independently of the others, so the maternal and paternal chromosomes are mixed. Crossing over: homologous chromosomes exchange sections, so even a single chromosome is a new combination.
4. Why halving is necessary
Fertilisation combines two gametes. If each carried $46$, the zygote would have $92$ and the number would double every generation. Halving in meiosis is what keeps it constant.
Matches Option B.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. The chromosomes are copied before the cell divides — True of Both
True of both. Every cell division is preceded by DNA replication. - C. Two daughter cells are produced — Mitosis Described
That is mitosis. Meiosis produces four cells, from two divisions after one replication. - D. It occurs in body cells for growth and repair — Mitosis Described
Growth and repair are mitosis. Meiosis occurs only in the reproductive organs. - E. The daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell — Mitosis Described
Mitosis again - and the opposite of what meiosis does.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Choosing 'the chromosomes are copied first'. That is true of meiosis, but it is equally true of mitosis, so it cannot distinguish them.
Takeaway (📌):
Meiosis: one replication, two divisions, four haploid cells, all different. Mitosis: one replication, one division, two identical diploid cells.
Question 22
Back to top ↑Which pairing of a digestive enzyme with the products it releases is correct?
Key Idea (💡): Proteases break proteins into amino acids, amylases break starch into simple sugars, and lipases break lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
Shortcut rehearsed: Rate climbs with temperature until the enzyme denatures — Protease to amino acids, amylase to sugars, lipase to fatty acids and glycerol
ESAT specification: B8.4 — the role of amylases, proteases and lipases in the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q5 · Set 15 Biology Q10 · Set 15 Biology Q15 · Set 15 Biology Q20
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. Protease $\rightarrow$ amino acids
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Protease $\to$ protein $\to$ amino acids.
Only option A pairs correctly.
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. The three pairings
Amylase acts on starch, producing simple sugars such as maltose and ultimately glucose. Made in the salivary glands and the pancreas.
Protease acts on protein, producing amino acids. Includes pepsin in the stomach, which works at a strongly acidic pH.
- Lipase acts on lipids, producing fatty acids and glycerol. Made in the pancreas and helped by bile, which emulsifies the fat.
2. Reading the options against them
Only 'protease $\to$ amino acids' matches. Each of the other four takes an enzyme from one row and the products from another.
3. Why the products matter
Large food molecules cannot cross the wall of the small intestine. Digestion breaks them into molecules small enough to be absorbed into the blood - which is the whole purpose of the process.
4. A naming clue
The suffix *-ase* marks an enzyme and the stem names its substrate: amylase acts on amylose (starch), protease on protein, lipase on lipids. The name gives half the answer for free.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. Amylase $\rightarrow$ amino acids — Products Swapped
Amylase acts on starch, giving simple sugars. Amino acids come from protein. - C. Lipase $\rightarrow$ simple sugars — Products Swapped
Lipase acts on lipids, giving fatty acids and glycerol. Simple sugars come from starch. - D. Protease $\rightarrow$ fatty acids and glycerol — Products Swapped
Fatty acids and glycerol come from lipids, broken down by lipase, not from protein. - E. Amylase $\rightarrow$ fatty acids and glycerol — Products Swapped
Both halves misplaced: amylase acts on starch, and those products belong to lipid digestion.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Learning the enzymes and the products as two separate lists and pairing them under time pressure. Learn them as three linked rows: substrate, enzyme, products.
Takeaway (📌):
Starch-amylase-sugars; protein-protease-amino acids; lipid-lipase-fatty acids and glycerol.
Question 23
Back to top ↑Which statement correctly contrasts hormonal coordination with nervous coordination?
Key Idea (💡): Hormones are chemicals released by endocrine glands into the blood, which carries them everywhere; responses are slower to start, more widespread and longer lasting. Nervous impulses are electrical, travel along specific neurones, and produce fast, short-lived, precisely targeted responses.
Shortcut rehearsed: Negative feedback always opposes the change that triggered it — Nerves are fast and brief; hormones are slower and longer lasting
ESAT specification: B9.4 — hormones: release from endocrine glands, transport in the blood, and comparison with nervous coordination
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 16 Biology Q1 · Set 16 Biology Q7 · Set 16 Biology Q13 · Set 16 Biology Q17
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: D. Hormones are carried in the blood, so responses are generally slower to begin but longer lasting, whereas nervous impulses travel along neurones and act rapidly and briefly
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Hormones: blood, slow, long, widespread.
Nerves: neurones, fast, brief, targeted.
Matches Option D.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Route
Hormones are secreted directly into the blood and reach every tissue, acting only where the cells have the right receptors. Nervous impulses travel along neurones to one specific effector.
2. Speed
An impulse travels a nerve in milliseconds. A hormone must be secreted, circulate and bind, which takes seconds at best and often much longer.
3. Duration
A nervous response ends as soon as the impulses stop. A hormone persists until it is broken down or excreted, so its effect outlasts its release - which is what suits it to processes such as growth, the menstrual cycle and metabolic regulation.
4. Where the two overlap
Adrenaline is the useful exception: a hormone with an unusually rapid effect, released in response to a nervous signal. It sits between the two systems and is worth quoting whenever a comparison question asks for nuance.
Matches Option D.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Hormonal responses are faster and shorter-lasting than nervous responses — Both Reversed
Both halves reversed: hormonal responses are slower to begin and last longer. - B. Hormones travel along neurones to reach their target organs — Route Confused
Hormones travel in the bloodstream. Neurones carry electrical impulses, not hormones. - C. Nervous responses are slower but affect the whole body at once — Both Reversed
Reversed on both counts: nervous responses are fast and precisely targeted, while hormonal ones are widespread. - E. Both systems use the same transmission route, so their response times are identical — Difference Denied
The routes are quite different - blood against neurones - and so are the speeds.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Assuming 'chemical' implies slow and imprecise in every respect. Hormones are slower to start but their effects are longer lasting, and that difference is usually what the question is testing.
Takeaway (📌):
Nerves: electrical, along neurones, fast, brief, targeted. Hormones: chemical, in the blood, slower, longer, widespread.
Question 24
Back to top ↑In a sample of double-stranded DNA, $30\%$ of the bases are adenine. What percentage of the bases are guanine?
Key Idea (💡): A pairs only with T and C only with G, so $\%A = \%T$ and $\%C = \%G$. With $A = T = 30\%$, the remaining $40\%$ is shared equally between C and G, giving $G = 20\%$.
Shortcut rehearsed: Bases pair, and three of them code for one amino acid — A pairs with T and C with G, so their percentages are equal
ESAT specification: B5.2 — the structure of DNA: the double helix, complementary base pairing and the four bases
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q4 · Set 15 Biology Q9 · Set 15 Biology Q14 · Set 15 Biology Q19
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: E. $20\%$
Fastest Approach (🚀):
$A = 30 \Rightarrow T = 30$, so $A+T = 60\%$.
Remaining $= 40\%$, split equally: $C = G = 20\%$.
Matches Option E.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What complementary pairing forces
In double-stranded DNA, adenine pairs only with thymine and cytosine only with guanine. Every A on one strand faces a T on the other, so across the whole molecule the two are present in equal numbers - and likewise C and G. These are Chargaff's rules.
2. Fill in what is known
$\%A = 30 \implies \%T = 30$
$\%A + \%T = 60\%$
3. Share out the remainder
All four bases together account for $100\%$, so C and G together are $100 - 60 = 40\%$. Being equal, each is $20\%$.
4. Check the whole set
$A = 30$, $T = 30$, $C = 20$, $G = 20$, totalling $100\%$, with $A = T$ and $C = G$ as required. Note this reasoning fails for single-stranded nucleic acids such as most RNA, where there is no complementary partner to enforce the equality.
Matches Option E.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. $30\%$ — All Equal
Assumes all four bases are equally abundant. Only the paired bases match; the AT:CG ratio varies between species. - B. $15\%$ — Wrong Quantity Halved
Halves the adenine figure. The $40\%$ that remains after A and T is what gets halved, not the $30\%$. - C. $40\%$ — Pair Not Halved
The total for cytosine and guanine together. Guanine is half of it. - D. $70\%$ — Partner Ignored
$100 - 30$, which ignores thymine entirely. Thymine takes another $30\%$.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Assuming all four bases are present in equal amounts. Only the pairs are equal; the ratio between the AT pair and the CG pair varies between organisms and is not fixed at all.
Takeaway (📌):
$\%A = \%T$ and $\%C = \%G$. Subtract the known pair from $100$ and halve what is left.
Question 25
Back to top ↑Which statement about stem cells is correct?
Key Idea (💡): A stem cell is unspecialised and can both divide and differentiate. Embryonic stem cells can become almost any cell type; adult stem cells, such as those in bone marrow, are restricted to a related family of types.
Shortcut rehearsed: Selection acts on variation that is already there — Embryonic stem cells are versatile; adult ones are limited
ESAT specification: B6.2 — stem cells: totipotent, pluripotent and adult stem cells, and their capacity to differentiate
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 15 Biology Q3 · Set 15 Biology Q8 · Set 15 Biology Q13 · Set 15 Biology Q18
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: D. Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into a wide range of cell types, while adult stem cells are limited to a narrower range
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Embryonic: wide range. Adult: narrow range.
Both divide, both are unspecialised.
Matches Option D.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. What makes a cell a stem cell
Two properties together: it is unspecialised, and it can divide to produce more cells that may then differentiate into specialised types. A cell that has already specialised is not a stem cell.
2. Embryonic stem cells
Cells of the very early embryo can give rise to essentially every cell type in the body. The earliest are totipotent - able to form a whole organism - and those a little later are pluripotent.
3. Adult stem cells
These persist in tissues such as bone marrow and the base of the skin, but each is restricted to a related family. Bone marrow stem cells make blood cells, not neurones. They are the reason a bone marrow transplant works.
4. Why the difference matters
The wider potential of embryonic stem cells is what makes them medically attractive and what makes their use ethically contested, since obtaining them has historically meant destroying an embryo. Adult stem cells avoid that objection but can do less.
Matches Option D.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. Stem cells are found only in embryos — Adult Cells Denied
Adults retain stem cells in bone marrow, the skin and elsewhere - which is why a bone marrow transplant can work. - B. Adult stem cells can differentiate into any cell type in the body — Potential Overstated
That is the embryonic capability. Adult stem cells are restricted to a related family of types. - C. Stem cells are cells that have already differentiated into a specialised type — Definition Inverted
The opposite of the definition: a stem cell is unspecialised, and differentiation is what it may go on to do. - E. Stem cells are unable to divide, which is why they remain unspecialised — Division Denied
Division is essential to what a stem cell is for. Without it, a stem cell could not repair or replace anything.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Treating all stem cells as equivalent. The distinction between embryonic and adult potential is the substance of most questions in this topic.
Takeaway (📌):
Stem cells are unspecialised and divide. Embryonic ones can become almost anything; adult ones are restricted to a related family.
Question 26
Back to top ↑Which of the following correctly describes protein synthesis in a eukaryotic cell?
Key Idea (💡): DNA is too large to leave the nucleus and is too valuable to risk. A complementary mRNA copy of one gene is transcribed there, passes through a nuclear pore to a ribosome, and is translated into a chain of amino acids.
Shortcut rehearsed: Inside the bracket acts on x and does the opposite — Transcribe in the nucleus, translate at the ribosome
ESAT specification: B5.3 — protein synthesis: transcription in the nucleus and translation at the ribosome
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 10 Adv Maths Q2 · Set 11 Adv Maths Q10 · Set 11 Adv Maths Q16 · Set 12 Adv Maths Q9
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: A. DNA is transcribed into mRNA in the nucleus; the mRNA passes to a ribosome, where it is translated into a sequence of amino acids
Fastest Approach (🚀):
Nucleus: DNA $\to$ mRNA (transcription).
Ribosome: mRNA $\to$ amino acid chain (translation).
Matches Option A.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Transcription, in the nucleus
The two DNA strands separate over the gene, and a complementary mRNA copy is built against one of them. Only that gene is copied - not the whole chromosome.
2. Why a messenger is needed at all
DNA is far too large to pass through a nuclear pore, and it is the cell's only master copy. Sending out a short, disposable transcript protects it and allows many copies of one protein to be made from a single gene.
3. Translation, at the ribosome
The mRNA leaves through a nuclear pore and binds to a ribosome in the cytoplasm. There it is read three bases at a time; each triplet specifies one amino acid, brought in by a tRNA carrying the complementary anticodon. The amino acids are joined in order, and the chain folds into the finished protein.
4. The direction of information flow
DNA $\to$ mRNA $\to$ protein, and in that order. Options B and D run it backwards, which is the single most common way to lose this mark.
Matches Option A.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- B. mRNA is transcribed into DNA in the cytoplasm, and the DNA is then translated in the nucleus — Direction Reversed
Runs the whole process backwards and puts each stage in the wrong compartment. Transcription is DNA to mRNA, in the nucleus. - C. Proteins are assembled directly on the DNA at the ribosome, with no intermediate molecule — No Intermediate
Ribosomes are in the cytoplasm and DNA stays in the nucleus, so they never meet. The intermediate is exactly what makes the process work. - D. tRNA is transcribed from mRNA and then carries the genetic code back into the nucleus — tRNA Role Wrong
tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome; it is not transcribed from mRNA and never returns to the nucleus with a message. - E. DNA leaves the nucleus and is translated directly at the ribosome — DNA Exported
DNA does not leave the nucleus. Its size and its status as the only master copy are both reasons why.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Letting DNA leave the nucleus. It never does in a eukaryote - that is precisely the problem mRNA exists to solve.
Takeaway (📌):
DNA to mRNA in the nucleus, mRNA to protein at the ribosome. The information only ever flows that way.
Question 27
Back to top ↑A single base in the coding sequence of a gene is substituted for a different base. Which statement about the effect on the protein is correct?
Key Idea (💡): There are $64$ triplets for $20$ amino acids, so most amino acids have more than one codon. A substitution in the third base of a triplet often specifies the same amino acid, and the protein is unchanged.
Shortcut rehearsed: Substitute to reveal a hidden quadratic — The code is degenerate, so a substitution may change nothing
ESAT specification: B5.4 — gene mutations: changes to the nucleotide sequence and their possible effects on the protein
Same shortcut elsewhere: Set 5 Maths Q27 · Set 8 Adv Maths Q10 · Set 8 Adv Maths Q27 · Set 9 Adv Maths Q10
Reveal the answer & worked solution — commit to an option first
Correct Answer: C. It may change one amino acid, or none at all, because several different triplets can code for the same amino acid
Fastest Approach (🚀):
$64$ triplets, $20$ amino acids $\Rightarrow$ the code is degenerate.
A substitution may be silent, or change one amino acid.
Matches Option C.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Why the code is degenerate
Three bases with four choices each give $4^3 = 64$ triplets, but there are only $20$ amino acids to specify. Most amino acids therefore have several codons, and those usually differ only in the third base.
2. What follows for a substitution
The new triplet may code for the same amino acid, so the protein is identical. The mutation is silent.
It may code for a different amino acid. One residue changes, and whether that matters depends on where it sits - a change in the active site of an enzyme is serious, one on the surface often is not.
- It may create a stop codon, cutting the protein short.
3. Why a substitution is not a frameshift
Substituting one base leaves the total number unchanged, so the reading frame is intact and every later triplet is read as before. Inserting or deleting a base shifts the frame and does change every amino acid downstream - which is the effect option D describes.
4. Where mutations arise
They occur in any dividing cell, spontaneously or from radiation and some chemicals. Only a mutation in a cell that gives rise to a gamete can be inherited, but body-cell mutations certainly happen - that is how many cancers begin.
Matches Option C.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong (❌):
- A. It always changes the amino acid sequence of the protein — Absolute Claim
Overlooks silent mutations. With $64$ triplets for $20$ amino acids, many substitutions specify the same amino acid. - B. It always prevents the protein from being made at all — Absolute Claim
A premature stop codon can do this, but it is one outcome among several rather than a certainty. - D. It changes every amino acid coded for after the point of the mutation — Frameshift Confused
That is a frameshift, caused by an insertion or a deletion. A substitution keeps the base count and the reading frame intact. - E. It can only happen during meiosis, so it never affects body cells — Absolute Claim
Mutations occur in any dividing cell. Body-cell mutations are not inherited, but they happen constantly and are how many cancers start.
Common Mistake (⚠️):
Treating every mutation as harmful. Most substitutions are silent or neutral; harmful ones are the minority, and beneficial ones are what natural selection acts on.
Takeaway (📌):
Substitution: silent, one amino acid changed, or a premature stop. Insertion or deletion: frameshift, everything downstream changed.
Where to go next
- Next: ESAT preparation guide, for the full index of modules and past papers.
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